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crilee
04-28-2009, 10:59 PM
Hi Willie,

in Danny Boy dvd you mention proceding the II with its V and than proceding that V with its II.

But in the end when you sum it all up it ended up like this i the key of Bb:

Dm-G7-Cm-F7-Bb

Can you explain the theory here. Because if we look at it as a formel the Cm should be a Cmaj, not. (II-V-I). Bb is the target for the last three chords, but how should I think about the first target? In this case the Cm. In short, how shall I think when the target is not a major chord but a minor? Or do I complicate things?

williemyette
08-29-2009, 05:30 PM
I know that this is a late reply to this post, but it might help others:


The Bb is the target.

Dm-G7 resolves to the Cminor

Cm-F7 resolves to Bb

This would be a iii to... V7/ii to... ii to... V7/I to... I progression

crilee
09-14-2009, 05:24 PM
Ok, got the answer in another lesson...if the target is a minor chord the progression could be for instance if the target is Cm; Dm7b5-G7-Cm.

Thanks!